Although I agree that as an explanation it can be just a very partial one, what I mean is not that Photoshop added details to the 24mm, but that with an "optically" made enlargement the CoCs would have grown "just like the enlargement", while with a digital enlargement the enlarged pixels are, in fact, "calculated" so the enlargement is less "confused". We don't have the "linear defocusing" of an optical enlargement so to speak. ...
Bill, I don't know if I get you right, but when people say that DoF depends on aperture (among other factors) they usually mean f/value, not absolute aperture in mm. That f/value already takes into account that for different focal lengths, the absolute aperture in mm that results in a certain f/value is different.
I can't help thinking where is the "catch" here...
I was merely pointing out that the fstop is a human construct.
As such to say that Depth of field is variable to this is misleading in and of itself.
If fstop is a function of focal length and aperture, which are real measurments, and, as such, not human constructs, then the relationship of Depth of field has tio be seen in relation of the two physical /optical things that make up fstop.
Aperture is actually easy. f8 at at 28mm focal length is a much smaller hole than F8 at 200mm. The larger hole will give less acceptable spread of focus.
Focal length as Ralph has shown also affects DOF.
So we loose two ways.
I am trying to up;oad the pages from time-life the camera which helped me.
No need to be patronizing. After presenting the math for my argument and offering pictorial evidence, you may want to put your cards on the table. Show us the math that shows how print magnification changes the DoF. I'm really interested.
Q.G.
Still waiting for your evidence. Math, data, pictorial samples. Where is it?
My claim: DoF is locked in after exposure. Print magnification cannot change it.
My proof: All published DoF equations include nothing but image-taking parameters.
Your claim: DoF can be changed with print magnification.
Your proof: ?
How? Just tell us. Really like to see it.
... PS Athirill, that is what I was thinking myself, but the pictures posted by Ralph showed that even after enlarging the difference in "out-of-focusness" is quite apparent. One would expect that, after enlarging a section of the wide-angle picture, the CoCs would be similar to the ones of the tele-lens picture. Ralph, the way I see it, did bring the "equal magnification" factor into the test, and the DoF still showed a difference.
... Your test is also shot at the same f-stop, instead of the same aperture.
This makes me think a lot of different things.
Confirms that wide angle lenses get more DoF, and it's not just because the image is smaller.
There is a real difference between formats.
For more bokeh, a larger format will give you more - for the same f/stop.
Explains why you get f/16 on 35mm format lenses and f/64 on large format lenses - for the same DoF you may need it.
This makes me think a lot of different things.
Confirms that wide angle lenses get more DoF, and it's not just because the image is smaller.
There is a real difference between formats.
For more bokeh, a larger format will give you more - for the same f/stop.
Explains why you get f/16 on 35mm format lenses and f/64 on large format lenses - for the same DoF you may need it.
... Focal length is also irrelevent to DoF. Aperture and focus distance determine DoF.
Focal length is also irrelevent to DoF. Aperture and focus distance determine DoF.
Can you help me explain the schematics in post 159 then?
... Maybe you're thinking of the literal diameter of the aperture blade opening instead of f/stops?
And maybe that is part of the puzzle. If we used diameter to calibrate apertures instead of stops, maybe then DoF would not vary as much with different focal lengths? ...
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