Hi,
I'm co-authoring a revision of a historic image database and I have a problem which I was hoping someone here might be willing to help with. To clarify whilst we just specialise in the context and provenance of the images we deal with, not any sort of technical discussion of the photographs themselves, but I think this might be a really simple question for someone who knows what they're doing.
We have a set of four images (1-4) taken in 1930 for which the negatives exist. They were taken by an amateur photographer who processed them himself. We can be absolutely sure that they were all taken on the same day and within a fairly short space of time. Unfortunately I'm not able to post any publicly due to restrictions agreed with their owner. Each is in portrait format as are all known prints, all of which are in black and white.
We also have two further images (5-6) which were definitely taken at exactly the same time and place, and of the same subject. However, the negatives for these are unknown. Each of their known prints are square, most are sepia, but one is in black and white.
5 and 6 were definitely processed separately, the images would have been of considerable interest at the time and have become valuable in the following decades. There is no doubt they would have attracted interest from professional photographers and researchers.
I have to determine whether or not the prints of the two images (5-6) could have been made from two now missing negatives from the series of four (1-4), which the archival evidence appears to suggest, or whether there must have been two separate photographers, which the circumstantial evidence suggests. Essentially, what I'm asking is whether it would would be possible to make a sepia print from a black and white negative in 1930? I imagine it would have been, but I need to exclude this as an absolute objection.
Thanks for reading, if anyone is able to help I'd be very grateful.
I'm co-authoring a revision of a historic image database and I have a problem which I was hoping someone here might be willing to help with. To clarify whilst we just specialise in the context and provenance of the images we deal with, not any sort of technical discussion of the photographs themselves, but I think this might be a really simple question for someone who knows what they're doing.
We have a set of four images (1-4) taken in 1930 for which the negatives exist. They were taken by an amateur photographer who processed them himself. We can be absolutely sure that they were all taken on the same day and within a fairly short space of time. Unfortunately I'm not able to post any publicly due to restrictions agreed with their owner. Each is in portrait format as are all known prints, all of which are in black and white.
We also have two further images (5-6) which were definitely taken at exactly the same time and place, and of the same subject. However, the negatives for these are unknown. Each of their known prints are square, most are sepia, but one is in black and white.
5 and 6 were definitely processed separately, the images would have been of considerable interest at the time and have become valuable in the following decades. There is no doubt they would have attracted interest from professional photographers and researchers.
I have to determine whether or not the prints of the two images (5-6) could have been made from two now missing negatives from the series of four (1-4), which the archival evidence appears to suggest, or whether there must have been two separate photographers, which the circumstantial evidence suggests. Essentially, what I'm asking is whether it would would be possible to make a sepia print from a black and white negative in 1930? I imagine it would have been, but I need to exclude this as an absolute objection.
Thanks for reading, if anyone is able to help I'd be very grateful.
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