Thanks, O.G.
I was thinking about wanting to see that conversion chart for another reason.
(Wouldn't it be possible for people who can meter off the film plane to use that data?)
I'll try to put the numbers up later.
If a camera metering in the film plane/behind the lens produces a certain EV as a result, could that be translated into Lux at the film plane/behind the lens?
Could be, if it were a simple, 1 on 1 thing. But is it?
Things start to get complicated when you remember that the table is there to convert an incident light reading into Lux. That is, it says something about the light falling on to the scene.
The meter behind the lens however does not see that light, but the proportion of it that is reflected by the things in the scene.
So you would have to figure out a way to take the reflective properties of your scene out of the equation. Perhaps point your camera at something reflecting 100% (or near enough) of the incident light, and let that fill the meter's angle of view.
But then, you'd still have to make sure that the reflecting thingy does not disperse or concentrate the light it reflects, else it would not be a true measure for the light falling onto it.
My idea that in some cases, increasing hole size (I can only think in physical terms) will have no effect above some point is based on my logic that the light source is itself limited and has "coverage"; I cannot contnually increase the effect of lighting on my subject in the studio simply by using a wider lens..
if the lens I am using, already lets in all of the useful (incident) lght.
Yes.
Given (!) that the lens already lets in all the light ...
But it never does.
That is, it does so only if the light source (when direct), or the subject lit by it (if indirect), directs all of its light into that hole.
Imagine that scenario. You put a light up in your otherwise completely dark studio, point it at the subject, while not being able to see anything except when you look through the hole, through the lens.
Is my orignal question answerable?
How much over exposeure is being given when one exposes for the same duration but without an aperture?
Yes, if you find a way to relate the light falling onto the film when held in the light by itself to te amount of light falling onto the film when it is behind a lens with a given aperture size.
An answer was given, saying that at f/1, both amounts would be the same.
I don't know that that is correct. Could be.
If so, the rest is easy.
Hummm
I wonder if the pinhole people could throw any light onto this?
If they have ever determined the correct exposure time for a hole of infinitely large size, they'd have the answer straight away.
