I am confused.
A retailer within the EU selling to a consumer outside the EU is not obliged to add EU-VAT.
Thus who can nonetheless charge this plus a punishment fee from the seller and and on what legal basis?
Adding UK tax on such sale to the UK and transferring such to UK fiscal authorities is a service for UK consumers to enable them such import.
How can not doing so affect the EU retailer and not the importing UK-consumer?
Thats how I understood it. Akward isn´t it?You mean that if you do not collect the UK taxes for UK customers, the UK authorities then will not claim those from your UK customer, but instead will put you as german retailer in debth to UK treasury, which then likely would hamper any business activity with the UK of your company itself or when travelling as company representative to the UK?
My wife works for the Irish Revenue Commissioners and I have asked how can the UK HMRC enforce the collection of taxes on a company or individual that is not in their jurisdiction.
The simple answer I got was, as they are not in the EU, they can't.
Wow that's an old one> It seems to date from about the same time that in British films Anton Diffring was the most overworked nazi in the business
I do not see, though, how HMRC can have any jurisdiction over foreign entities to register as UK tax entity and collect taxes on their behalf.
I don’t see what there is to prevent a supplier overseas to the UK to bill, as they would anyone else they are exporting to, the amount less any local taxes, irrespective of the total value, and and leave any taxes due on import to the responsibility of the importer.
of course the UK authorities can just refuse to allow a shipment to enter the UK territory if it does not meet all the "rules" (including having the UK taxes paid. perhaps they could go back to the 1700s and have the tax amount paid by stamps applied to to the package.
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